I just particpated in a charity raffle for a new house conducted by a non-profit organization that benefits a particular type of degenerative nervous system disease. There were only to be 4900 tickets sold & then a "reverse raffle" of 100 tickets would take place. That is 100 tickets were to be picked at random, shuffled, & then drawn one by one with last remaining ticket winning. I thought about buying 5 tickets, but decided to only buy 2. And of course - none of my tickets made the final 100.
So yes I did not win - but I noticed some very odd things in the last 100 tickets pulled out.
1. One person had 2 tickets drawn, #'s 1906 & 1910 (not all that unusual I guess) - I'll name her "W1".
2. Another 2 people, that appeared to be husband & wife w/an unusual last name, each had a ticket drawn - #'s 1645 & 1695. I'll name them M1 & M2.
3. Most strange of all - one other gentlemen I'll name M3 HAD FOUR TICKETS DRAWN IN THE FINAL 100 - #'s 48, 497, 501, & 1981).
Well "ticket hog M3" - despite all his entries - did not win. Neither did "W1". However of the apparent husband/wife team, "M1"'s ticket won (#1645) - congratulations.
So my questions are: Approximately how many tickets did "ticket hog M3" have to buy out of 4900 just to get 4 picked from 100 ? (though supposedly they did not sell all 4900 & I know they sold at least 2842) Just seems like one would have to have bought a huge number of tickets just to corner 4% of the final reverse raffle.
How many tickets would the husband/wife team have to buy to garner 2% of the final raffle? I presume this would be approx. half the # that "M3" bought?
Just curious enough about this to speculate "what might have been" & I suspect this organization will have another raffle in a year. I may or may not particpate again depending upon how much someone's calculations may show a stacked deck against me.
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