I have a contract on a home in Austin. The home sits on a steeply sloped hillside. The home inspector showed me moisture readings all along the uphill side of the home running over 50% in the wood floors. As we move away from the wall, the moisture reading gradually drop. In the middle of the house (20' from the uphill facing wall) there is finally a reading below 10%. There is no moisture showing in the walls. There is no damage like cupping in the floors. But we can't tell if they were sanded recently. The floors are oak. They look like they are original to the 1979 era home. But they do appear to be in too good a shape like they may have been recently refinished. The homeowner is denying any knowledge of course and says the floors were polished only.
It appears that the limestone the house is built on is very porous and absorbs the rain immediately. My uneducated guess is that the water is flowing underground and pooling at the base of the slab and wicking up. There is no evidence of pooling at the slab level. There is a good 6" of slab above grade level. What really has me wondering is that we are in the middle of a 2 yr drought and have had only (2) - 1/2" rains in the last 6 months, both in the last month. There is also a sprinkler line that runs only 6" away from the slab on the entire length of the uphill side of the home. However, the homeowner states that the line has not been run in 6 months or more since all his plants died in the drought. If it was leaking, I would assume that I would see some pooling which I am not seeing. Plus the moisture levels in the floor is pretty consistent on the entire 50' length of the back of the house. It would seem to me that if that was leaking it would cause a higher level at one spot in the floor. Any way I would like opinions about:
1-causes
2-cures
3-should I get out of this contract all together or just try to negotiate a better deal
????
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