Hi folks,
A bijective map establishes a one-to-one correspondence between elements and has an inverse. If a map is homeomorphism (bijective and has a continuous inverse), the map garantees topologically equivalent transformation.
In topological view point, a donut and a cup are equivalent structures.
I just want to (intuitively) understand how the bijective map garantees topological equivalence in topological structure mapping. How do I know transformed structure is topologically equivalent after the one-to-one mapping with inverse condition.
Thanks!