I was invited to investigate an anomalous problem with a fire protection sprinkler system uncovered a few days ago (during an anually scheduled flow test of the system) where the water pressure in the sprinkler system rises from the water main pressure of about 120 psi to as much as 375 psi by mid-afternoon; dropping during the evening and through the night to about 120 psi again. There are 4-inch backflow preventers on the sprinkler main. Backflow preventers are not leakproof over a long period (say, overnight, when none of the processes mentioned earlier are going on).
The maintenance guys and others are convinced that since the pressure profile and the temperature profile of the building follow similar curves, the anomaly is temperature related. I contend that, since the sprinkler system has vertical risers to each sprinkler head, and since domestic water has air entrained in it to some degree, and also since the building is at the end of a 10-inch water main, the problem must be caused by water hammer due to processes going on in nearby buildings. Of course, the pressure spikes due to water hammer would have to be greater than 375 psi, and the pressure data logger samples only once every 2 minutes, so it would more than likely not sample at the instant a pressure spike might occur.
I have searched for and found information on temperature-pressure relationships for water, however I don't know that I understand it well enough to make my case (I'm an electrical engineer, but I've worked in a lot of engineering disciplines for a fairly long time, but thermodynamics ain't one of my favorites).
Can anyone explain in plain English what the pressure rise of water will be in a closed vessel with no entrained air per degree Kelvin rise in temperature? I'm not concerned about nonlinearities because the temperature range is 290oK to 305oK (17oC to 32oC or 60oF to 90oF). If you're feeling particularly helpful, can you describe what happens when 1% to 10% of the volume is entrained or trapped air?
Thanks, Bill