Hello!, this question is about beam theory and shear forces.
I've learned that the expression for shearstress VS/(It), only gives good results if the hight of the cross-section divided by the length of the beam is 1/10. But I never understood why it is like this.
I guess it comes from the assumption that cross-sections remain plane after deformation. And if the shear-stress is given by VS/(It), they will not remain parallell, but I can not see why this is the case. Even though the shear strain is given by z^2(in a lot of cases) and normalstrain is given by z(usually M*z/I), I can not see that a shear deformation gives a strain that screws up the hypothesis that cross-sections remain plane. I mean, how does a shear strain over the beam cross-section give a strain that ruins the linear normal strain?
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